XPW Transition Checkride Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• When does the HYD LEVEL LO annunciator activate?
• How is the SPR process effectively halted?
• What happens to the nose of the aircraft when power is increased from idle to go-around N1 during low flight speed?
• What is the recommended distance to avoid a thunderstorm when flying above FL230?
• At what pressure do the hydraulic pumps typically operate?
• What is the full capacity of the hydraulic reservoir?
• What does the acronym SPR stand for in aviation fueling?
• What does SID stand for in aviation terminology?
• Under what condition does the L/R FUEL FILTER BYPASS annunciator illuminate?
• What is the normal operating pressure range for the hydraulic system?
• Under what condition does the Hydraulic Pressure Relief Valve open?
• Who typically controls access to an ADIZ?
• During preflight, what should you check for with the Sniffle Valves?
• What is a critical scenario when runway available is less than CFL?
• What is the altitude to which the inner ring of Class C airspace extends?
• What is the primary purpose of the drain box?
• How many fuel probes are situated in the left mid tank of the fuselage?
• How is the emergency lighting in the cabin powered?
• What is the extension length of the T-1's nose strut?
• How many Precheck Selector Valves are found in the Precheck Valve Assembly?
• Why is it critical to understand RCR values for different runway conditions?
• What is a takeoff acceleration check designed to measure?
• Which of the following is required to operate in Class B airspace?
• What is the role of a stall fence?
• What should pilots assume about their ability to respond in an emergency during training?
• What does TORA stand for in aviation terms?
• What does pulling the LDG Gear circuit breaker during the EMER GEAR EXTENSION checklist accomplish?
• What is the maximum takeoff weight for the aircraft?
• What are the maximum DC loads with one generator operating while on the ground?
• What is the fuel fill quantity during pressure refueling?
• What is the first action to take if hydraulic pressure reads greater than 1850 PSI?
• When does a red unlocked indicator illuminate?
• What is one key factor affecting the refusal speed?
• What is the minimum distance from obstacles while taxiing with a wing walker?
• What does a split marker indicate during takeoff?
• What is the main purpose of the Precheck Selector Valves?
• What does the acronym TORA specifically relate to in aviation?
• How does the parking brake function?
• How is Reference Zero computed?
• Which area prohibits all aircraft due to national security reasons?
• What pressurizes the vent surge tank?
• What happens when the L/R Fuel PESS LO annunciator is triggered?
• What is the appropriate action when visible moisture is present?
• What do aircrews need to consider when the distance between the tab and performance data is minimal?
• What is the function of the Sniffle Valves?
• Under what condition must pilots operate in an Air Defense Identification Zone (ADIZ)?
• What type of gas is used as an extinguishing agent in the T-1?
• What are the types of braking available on the T-1?
• What could result from resetting a popped circuit breaker in the fuel system?
• What does the Start Bus primarily provide?
• What type of battery is the auxiliary (aux) battery?
• What is the purpose of the takeoff distance available (TODA)?
• Which factors typically induce a Dutch Roll motion?
• Which components are part of the Hydraulic Valve Package?
• When is it safe to approach hot brakes?
• What is the primary role of the Engine Driven Fuel Pumps?
• What type of airspace is classified as any controlled airspace that is not A, B, C, or D?
• What are the four types of fuel pumps found in the T-1?
• In order to use engine sync, the engines should be within what percentage?
• What is considered the best rate of climb speed?
• What is the minimum climb out factor for all takeoffs?
• What is the maximum fuel imbalance permitted during landing?
• What is the main function of the Battery Bus?
• What does Minimum Control Speed Air (Vmca) refer to?
• How is engine bleed air utilized in the hydraulic system?
• Which type of SID involves flying a preplanned heading and altitude after takeoff?
• What is the maximum current load drawn by the anti-ice system?
• What is the primary role of crew rest periods?
• Which of the following indicates that the hydraulic filter is functioning properly?
• Once the LDG gear has been extended using the emergency method, can you recycle the landing gear handle?
• What is the name of the bird forecasting system based solely on historical bird movement?
• When is an acceleration check required?
• What component must be checked to ensure proper idle conditions during engine start?
• What is the minimum distance from WX radar for ground personnel?
• When should you turn on the ignition switches?
• At what altitude should seat exchanges be performed to ensure safety?
• In a split marker scenario, how does CFL benefit engine out situations?
• What is the maximum thrust loss due to EFC failure?
• During the engine anti-ice ground check, how can you tell if the engine anti-ice is functioning?
• What is required to operate within Class D airspace?
• Which scenario would activate the L/R WING TANK OV PRESS annunciator?
• Which distance is used to determine required runway for touch and go landings?
• What indication will the flight deck show if the hydraulic filter is bypassed?
• What is the weight difference when refueling via gravity compared to pressure refueling?
• When would you need to manually activate the Boost Pumps?
• What is the cluster fuel for KICT?
• What does TFR stand for?
• What are the minimum weather requirements for VFR pattern?
• What is crossfeed limited to with two engines operating?
• What is the cloud clearance requirement for Class E airspace above 10,000 feet MSL?
• What is a disadvantage of a swept wing design?
• What is one of the main uses of the main battery?
• What is the purpose of the Battery Feeder Protection Unit?
• How many emergency brake applications are typically available?
• Which of the following is NOT a function of the Battery Charge Bus?
• What characteristic of Sniffle Valves indicates a potential malfunction?
• Where is the standby battery located?
• When does a flight duty period (FDP) begin?
• What is the spacing requirement for a 0F pattern?
• What caution should be observed regarding the fuel system?
• What is the output capacity (flow rate) of the hydraulic pumps?
• What closes the Engine shutoff valve?
• How is Take-off Flare defined?
• What is the maximum ramp weight for the aircraft?
• What is a key characteristic of a deep stall?
• How does the EMER Landing Gear Down handle function?
• What is the purpose of an Alert Area?
• How does the landing gear operate?
• What is the approximate life of the auxiliary battery?
• What happens if an unauthorized aircraft enters the ADIZ?
• Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a swept wing?
• What is the key indicator that the altitude compensator is functioning properly?
• What is one method to close the hydraulic shutoff valves?
• What is the primary function of the Standby Bus?
• What is the maximum number of oxygen blowout discs that can be missing?
• What are the weather requirements for flying in Class G airspace during the night?
• What action should be taken if lightning is within 25 miles?
• What is the minimum runway length for T-1 takeoff?
• When will the Boost Pumps automatically turn off after initial operation?
• Can the BUS Feed Circuit Breakers be reset?
• What should you do with the anti-skid fail annunciator illuminated?
• What does Class E airspace require for cloud clearance below 10,000 feet MSL?
• What causes the L/R FUEL LEVEL LO annunciator to illuminate?
• What action should be taken when lightning is within 5 miles?
• What does the GEN RESET NORM switch allow?
• What percentage by volume of icing inhibitor should be added with the PRIST additive?
• What speed is defined as Liftoff Speed (Vlof)?
• Which of the following is NOT a function of the Boost Pumps?
• What is the recommended time duration for advancing throttles during a takeoff?
• Which phase of flight is considered critical when landing?
• What is the cluster fuel for OKC?
• How are wing fuel probes connected to the fuel system?
• What is the maximum landing weight for the aircraft?
• Why is Ref 0 calculation different with split markers?
• How does wing washout affect stall characteristics?
• How is the Standby Bus primarily powered?
• What is the RCR value for a wet runway?
• What does the term Maximum Continuous Thrust entail?
• What is true regarding S1 in relation to Vrot?
• What is the maximum speed allowed in the inner 4 nautical mile radius of Class C airspace?
• What is the turbulence penetration speed for aircraft?
• What type of refueling is allowed if the pilot valves are inoperative?
• If tab data is within 1000 feet of available runway, what should aircrews do?
• How is the Hydraulic Pressure Bypass Valve opened?
• What function does a stall strip serve?
• What altitude should be avoided for performing stalls and maneuvers?
• What are MTRs primarily used for?
• What does a Restricted Area signify for pilots?
• What type of power does the Battery Bus supply?
• What does the Generator Control Unit (GCU) do during power generation?
• What defines Refusal Speed (Vr)?
• At what level does the hydraulic reservoir need to be refilled?
• What defines the Mode C Veil?
• What is the maximum DC load with one generator operating in the air below 32,500 feet?
• What is the electrical load drawn by the left load bus?
• What are the conditions set for performing unusual attitudes during flight training?
• What is the recommended course of action if the hydraulic pressure reading is between 750-1350 PSI?
• How many Sump Drains are found on the T-1?
• What is primarily indicated by the minimum runway specifications for T-1 aircraft?
• What is a caution regarding the braking system?
• Which speed is recognized as the range climb speed?
• What is the distribution of flapper valves in the wing tanks?
• What is the primary purpose of the AOA test?
• How is TOLD affected by a wet runway?
• How do you calculate Ref 0 when split markers are available?
• When flying above 32,500 feet, what is the maximum DC load capacity with one generator operating?
• What is the visibility requirement in Class D airspace?
• What does the Battery Charge Bus do?
• What AOA should you use to recover from TP stalls?
• What is the maximum speed limit below Class B airspace?
• What is the rollout lead point for a 30-degree turn?
• What does the Level Control Pilot Valve do?
• What does a pilot need to do if the landing gear warning tone sounds during flight?
• When does the L/R FUEL FEED annunciator illuminate?
• At what point is Rotation Speed (Vrot) reached?
• When will the hydraulic L/R PMP PRESS LO annunicator activate?
• How much tailwind component should be used for calculating flare/ground roll distances?
• If taking off on a wet runway, is it guaranteed to have split markers?
• What indicates that a runway is longer than the Critical Field Length (CFL)?
• What is the purpose of defining Go Around N1?
• How many fuel probes are located in the wing tanks?
• What is the maximum speed limit in Class D airspace?
• What is the range of motion for the elevator in the T-1?
• How far must you remain from aircraft being serviced with fuel or oxygen?
• Which bus typically supports nonessential electrical equipment in an aircraft?
• What is the main characteristic of Prohibited Areas in airspace?
• What altitude does the outer ring of Class C airspace reach?
• What is the minimum fuel requirement for the T-1?
• What is defined as crew rest for aircrew members?
• What should the power brake pressure gauge read?
• What characterizes Dutch Roll in aircraft motion?
• Where is the fuel temperature sensor located?
• Which probe system is used to monitor fuel levels in the fuel feed chamber?
• Can you begin configuring in the break during an overhead maneuver?
• Is Critical Field Length (CFL) affected when changing from a long runway to a shorter runway?
• What is the emergency fuel quantity for the T-1?
• If the hydraulic pressure reads between 1550-1850 PSI, what should the pilot do?
• What configuration of sectional lines typically represents Class D airspace?
• What is the required AOA activation point for the stick shaker at higher altitudes?
• What is Maximum Braking Speed (Vbmax)?
• What are the chord limits for main wheels in local operations?
• What is the obstacle clearance requirement when taxiing locally?
• How long should one typically wait before attempting to approach hot brakes?
• In what situation should the speed to rotate (Vrot) not be less than S1?
• What is the altitude range for Class A airspace?
• What is one of the primary functions of the Boost Pumps?
• Which of the following items is NOT included on the Galley Bus?
• What should be done if the fuel system indicates a problem during flight?
• What can lead to a higher fuel capacity in the wings when gravity refueling?
• How many emergency brake applications are available after using the EMER DOOR CLOSE handle?
• How is TODA determined?
• How does fuel flow in the fuselage tanks?
• What is the transponder requirement for flying over Class C airspace?
• What is the RCR value for a dry runway?
• For a 30F pattern, what should be the spacing reference?
• When should an acceleration check be accomplished during takeoff?
• How long does emergency gear extension normally take?
• What does the S1 equation prioritize when determining its value?
• What is the Minimum Control Speed Ground (Vmcg)?
• What is the name of the bird hazard notification system based on a network of NEXRAD radars?
• Which design feature is used to avoid stalls in the wing?
• What is the minimum altitude required for performing slow flight, stalls, and demonstrations?
• What would cause the hydraulic system to lose pressure?
• What does ASDA represent?
• What types of hydraulic pumps are used in the T-1?
• What is assumed during the Takeoff Ground Run (TOGR)?
• During a successful GPU start, what should the operational state of the GEN RESET switches be?
• What is the role of diodes in the electrical system?
• What should engine power be limited to during ground operations?
• How long should it take to advance the throttles to TRT during rolling takeoffs?
• Where should the GEN RESET switches be positioned for a Ground Power Unit (GPU) start?
• What is lost when the AC BUS SHED annunciator is illuminated?
• What is the purpose of the downlock release button?
• What happens if the hydraulic fluid reaches a low level?
• How many Float Check Valves are present in each wing?
• What is the minimum voltage required for GPU start?
• What is the impact on hydraulic fluid if a bypass valve is activated?
• What system does the Primary 26V AV Shed Bus supply power to?
• What assumptions are considered for Vmcg?
• What defines Class G airspace?
• Which of the following is a consideration for landing without hydraulic pressure?
• What is the main reason for implementing TFRs?
• At what altitude should landing gear be retracted according to performance data?
• Which system is monitored by the Battery Feeder Protection Unit for short circuits?
• What is the purpose of static wicks on the T-1?
• What is one function of the battery tie-in relay?
• What is a major benefit of incorporating stall strips into wing design?
• How is Ref 0 calculated when split markers are not available?
• When should the parking brake not be set?
• During the AOA test, at what degrees AOA does the stick shaker activate?
• Which of the following is false regarding the fuel flow in fuselage tanks?
• What is the role of motive flow in the operation of jet pumps?
• What should the pressure of the hydraulic accumulator be?
• What must a pilot be cautious about when applying brakes from the co-pilot's side?
• How can pilots legally navigate through an active MOA?
• When does the L/R Fuel PESS LO annunciator illuminate?
• In gravity refueling, which tank fills first?
• What type of battery is used in the T-1?
• What is a characteristic of the normalization processes during takeoff acceleration checks?
• What is the maximum zero fuel weight of the aircraft?
• What happens if an engine is lost after S1 in a split marker scenario?
• How many static wicks are installed on the T-1?
• What happens to the Flap Position Indicator when the AC BUS SHED annunciator is on?
• What caution should be observed regarding the operation of the transfer pumps?
• What is the function of the GEN RESET off switch?
• Why is being stop oriented important during training in T-1 aircraft?
• Under which conditions does the landing gear warning tone sound?
• What happens to Vcef on a wet runway?
• How much recovery fuel is required for Vance?
• What is the full travel range of the rudder?
• What is the minimum width of a runway?
• What causes ballooning during landing?
• What pressure is necessary for Sniffle Valves to open and dump fuel overboard?
• How long is the preflight inspection valid for (BPO)?
• What is the main consideration for retracting landing gear?
• When does the L/R FUEL XFR PRESS LO annunciator illuminate?
• When are the emergency brakes typically used?
• Which system is powered by the Primary 26V AC BUS?
• What is the indicated speed for Minimum Control Speed Air (Vmca)?
• What altitude begins the inner circle of Class C airspace?
• What is the rollout lead point for a 45-degree turn?
• What is the correct sequence of steps in the Fuel Crossfeed Process?
• What is one of the primary functions of the Generator Control Unit (GCU) during engine start?
• What is an example of a hybrid SID?
• What triggers the L/R WING TANK OV PRESS annunciator?
• Which component monitors the starter speed during the engine start process?
• What occurs if the main gear fuselage doors are not closed and locked?
• Which system component generally is NOT dependent on hydraulic pressure?
• What is the primary function of the Battery Charge Bus?
• What happens when the FUEL TRANSFER pumps operate with the switches in RESET?
• What defines Critical Field Length (CFL)?
• What is the primary purpose of the Float Check Valves?
• Under what condition are brakes considered to be hot?
• What happens to the motive flow shutoff valves when the L/R switch is set to NORM?
• What is the maximum fuel imbalance allowed during takeoff?
• What is the maximum fuel imbalance during touch and go maneuvers?
• What component directly supplies fuel to the engine?
• What does critical mach refer to in aviation?
• Which item is present on the Left Nonessential Bus?
• What is the primary function of the Level Control Shutoff Valve?
• Which electrical component is primarily responsible for controlling generator operations?
• What is the ending condition of a flight duty period (FDP)?
• What is the purpose of Military Operations Areas (MOAs)?
• What is the consequence of brake thermal fuse plugs releasing?
• What happens to the hydraulic system if one pump fails?
• What would indicate a malfunctioning fuel temperature sensor?
• What pressure reading indicates that the pressure is too low in the hydraulic system?
• Which factor is important for Vbmax?
• What is the maximum DC load capacity with two generators functioning on the ground?
• How does landing with 0 hydraulic pressure impact landing distance?
• How does one know that the Boost Pumps have turned off?
• What is the time required for gear extension when the EMER L/G Down handle is activated?
• What does Climbout Speed (Vco) signify?
• How long does the landing gear extension and retraction cycle take?
• To what pressure is the hydraulic reservoir pressurized?
• What is the climb out factor used for?
• Why does gravity refueling allow for less fuel compared to pressure refueling?
• High hydraulic pressure is indicated by which of the following?
• What does Critical Engine Failure Speed (Vcef) represent?
• What is the thrust limit during a go around according to the definition of Go Around N1?
• What is the visibility requirement in Class C airspace?
• What is the cloud clearance requirement for Class E airspace below 10,000 feet MSL?
• What is the altitude limitation of the fuel system?
• What are the weather requirements for flying in Class G airspace during the day?
• What is the basic zero fuel weight of the aircraft?
• What does a FLAP ASYM annunciator indicate?
• What happens at approximately 35-40% N2 during engine start, according to the GCU's function?
• What condition affects the determination of Vmca?
• What is the cluster fuel for KCSM?
• What does the Start Bus use as its primary power source?
• Which action is NOT used to close the hydraulic shutoff valves?
• During takeoff, what is the effect on the aircraft when power is increased at low speeds?
• Under what condition will the Boost Pumps automatically operate?
• What is the minimum distance from obstacles while taxiing without a wing walker?
• How do the Primary Jet Pumps function once the system is initiated?
• When is anti-skid available upon landing?
• At what tire speed is anti-skid activated?
• How far does a Warning Area extend from the U.S. coastline?
• With the fuel transfer switches in AUTO, when will fuel stop being pumped from the Mid Tanks to the wing tanks?
• What is the extension of the T-1's main strut?
• Why does the stick shaker activate twice during a ground check?
• At what percentage of N2 should the EFC come on during engine start?
• What is the required trim condition for Vmca?
• Which system is powered by the Secondary 115V AC Bus?
• What is the function of the fuel filter in the fuel system?
• What mechanism does the EMER DOOR CLOSE handle use to operate?
• How do the Jet pumps operate when the L/R switch is in the OFF position?
• What is a precaution when operating in areas with known bird activity?
• How many seconds should the Horizontal Stab anti-ice failure light be out during the test?
• What percentage of N2 is required by starter generators to achieve the desired electrical output?
• What is the maximum nosewheel steering angle when using rudder pedals and differential braking?
• How many ports are used during gravity refueling?
• What is the primary function of the chine on the nose wheel?
• What is the primary calculation adjustment made with split markers?
• How do the FUEL TRANSFER pumps operate with the switches in ON?
• How many flapper valves are installed in each wing tank?
• What should the T-1's main strut extension be referenced for?
• Which declaration assists in determining which runway to use for a landing?
• What does S1 represent?
• How is braking primarily controlled?
• Where is the aux battery located?
• What occurs when the Hydraulic Pressure Bypass Valve is opened?
• What happens if the pressure in the hydraulic accumulator is too low?
• When does the stick shaker activate at altitudes below 20,000 feet?
• When does crew rest officially begin?
• What is the responsibility of the pilot during an RNAV Departure?
• What is the temperature limitation for the fuel system?
• What happens when the Standby Battery is switched to Arm?
• If the pilot valves are inoperative, what action is not advisable?
• What must be compared against CFL when changing runways?
• Can you taxi behind a T-1 holding in the hammerhead?
• What are the amp and voltage limits for a battery start?
• Which annunciator indicates that the pressure differential in the fuel filter is too high?
• What is the purpose of the boost pump in relation to the fuel system?
• What is the recommended spacing from the runway during a pattern?
• What is the backup source of power for the No. 2 Inverter?
• What is the primary function of the Battery Tie-In Relay?
• For a battery start, where should the GEN RESET switches be set?
• What is one key effect of a swept wing design during high-speed flight?
• What type of equipment is supplied with power from the Radio Bus in an aircraft?
• What is the maximum fuel imbalance allowed during flight?
• What is the approximate life of the standby battery?
• Is it permissible to practice TP Stalls past the stick shaker?
• What is the normal pressure range for the nitrogen system?
• How long does it typically take for the maximum temperature to reach the wheel brake assembly?
• What is the maximum number of main wheel chord limits for out and back operations?
• How many emergency lights are present in the T-1 cabin?
• What do you need to taxi past a fuel truck?
• What happens if a low state main battery is charged below 22V DC?
• How much current does the right load bus draw from the system?
• What is the capacity of the Fuel Feed Chamber?
• When does the white Jet Pump Operating light turn on?
• What action should be taken with the Jet pump switches during an engine fire?
• What is the main result of having a T-Tail configuration?
• At what percentage should starter dropout occur?
• What is the recommended flap setting for strong or gusty crosswinds?
• For T-1 landing, what is the minimum runway length required?
• Which of the following is NOT a type of Pressure Relief Valve in the Fuel System?
• What weight threshold in the fuel feed chamber indicates the need to manually activate the Boost Pumps?
• What items are included on the Right Nonessential Bus?
• What is the break zone for an overhead pattern?
• What type of fuel tank is the AFT Fuselage?
• Which component opens to pull air in if an internal vacuum occurs?
• How far out does the EMER L/G Down handle need to be pulled?
• What is required to enter Class C airspace?
• Which of these valves allows both fuel and air to be vented overboard?
• What should a pilot do if they experience ballooning during landing?
• Can you practice no flap full stops during flight training?
• What should be done if the hydraulic gauge indicates pressure above 1650 PSI?
• What is a key characteristic of the Right Nonessential Bus in aircraft systems?
• How many check valves are found in the fuel system?
• What type of battery is the standby battery?
• How is the hydraulic system kept functional during operation?
• What is the maximum angle of bank permitted in IMC conditions?
• If lightning is within 10 miles, what should aircraft in the pattern do?
• What is LDA in the context of aviation?
• What is the fuel fill quantity during gravity refueling?
• What is the purpose of calculating Vmca?
• What speed must be achieved to rotate the aircraft in a split marker scenario?
• What is the main purpose of wing washout?
• Which of the following items is NOT on the battery bus?
• Which of the following reduces roll control during a stall when using swept wings?
• How does the S1 equation's "stop-oriented" setup affect decision-making?
• Why is it crucial to monitor the GPU voltage during start procedures?
• How many static wicks can be missing on the T-1?
• What is the maximum nosewheel steering angle achievable with rudder pedal only?
• What is the function of the Toilet in relation to the Galley Bus?
• What action should be taken if the Horizontal Stab anti-ice failure light does not go out?
• What is the acceptable ITT rise during the engine anti-ice ground check indicative of?
• When below FL230, how far should you avoid a thunderstorm?
• What speed is used for Minimum Control Speed Ground (Vmcg)?
• What disadvantage is associated with a T-Tail design in aircraft?
• What does Takeoff Rated Thrust refer to?
• How many flapper valves are installed in the fuselage?
• When will the brake thermal fuse plugs release?
• What is the minimum altitude for seat exchanges during flight?
• What are some advantages of the T-Tail design?
• What is Critical Field Length (CFL) based on?
• What is the minimum voltage restriction for the main battery?
• If the hydraulic reservoir is refilled to 1.2 gallons, what happens when it drops to 0.8 gallons?
• What situation might occur if the hydraulic pressure drops below 750 PSI?
• How many fuel probes are positioned in the fuselage tanks?
• At what weight threshold is brake failure likely to occur?
• What powers the Emergency Bus?
• What is a Warning Area?
• When are the fuel quantity indicators considered unreliable?
• What is the definition of Maximum Continuous Thrust?
• What fuel limitation prohibits takeoff?
• Under what condition do the Fuel Transfer Pumps automatically energize?
• Which items are typically found on the Radio Bus?
• Which flight speed should be maintained for optimal climb performance?